Perhaps someone can explain this to me as I’m not knowledgeable about P&S…
Let’s take Mudryk, for example, who was signed for £88.5m on an 8yr contract. Is amortisation linear, i.e. after a year he would be valued as ~£77.4, reducing in value by around £11.1m per year (88.5/8)?
And then if I have understood this correctly and this is the case, does that mean if Chelsea want to sell him in the summer then they would need to recoup ~£77.4m just to break even? And if they sold him for, say, £50m (hopefully to the Rapists) then that would show on Chelsea’s books as a net loss of ~£27.4m, further compounding the quagmire they are in?
I’m finding it hard to believe this is the case, and the thought that it might be makes me giddy with delight.
Let’s take Mudryk, for example, who was signed for £88.5m on an 8yr contract. Is amortisation linear, i.e. after a year he would be valued as ~£77.4, reducing in value by around £11.1m per year (88.5/8)?
And then if I have understood this correctly and this is the case, does that mean if Chelsea want to sell him in the summer then they would need to recoup ~£77.4m just to break even? And if they sold him for, say, £50m (hopefully to the Rapists) then that would show on Chelsea’s books as a net loss of ~£27.4m, further compounding the quagmire they are in?
I’m finding it hard to believe this is the case, and the thought that it might be makes me giddy with delight.